Originally posted by humanflyz:
<STRONG>@at99:
Here's your original question:
Why did tolkein do something like this?
By "this" I assume you mean all of Tolkien's works regarding Middle-Earth. I think the answers that Vivien, Thorin, and I provided is sufficient enough to answer your question.
In the letter to Milton Waldman that's in the preface of the Silmarillion, Tolkien remarked that Britain's mythology is not original, it's mostly influenced by Celtic folklores and Welsh folklores. Tolkien even thought that the Arthurian legends unoriginal because he considered it influenced by Welsh folklore and mythology.
Tolkien did all this work because he wanted to create an original mythology for Britain, although his mythology is heavily influenced by the Eddas and Celtic folklore.
[ 01-03-2002: Message edited by: humanflyz ]
[ 01-03-2002: Message edited by: humanflyz ]</STRONG>
I guess my question of why Tolkein created his works was meant to provoke thought (I dont know the answer) and not provoke people.
However your answers do not explain things.
You dont know much about British history right? or thorin
Celtic mythlogy is British (and is vast) and England is not Britain.
So your answers to mytholgy not being originally British but Welsh and Celtic dont make sense at all. Neither does the Arthurian argument.
It still begs question why he did?
I dont mean to annoy people but I am not getting the answers.
Wheres Fable on all of this?
[ 01-03-2002: Message edited by: at99 ]