Posted: Tue Oct 25, 2005 11:48 am
Isn't this really just a question of moral/societal reletivism vs. absolutism?
The Internet's authoritative role-playing game forum.
https://gamebanshee.com/forums/
I don't really undestand this. There can be no moral problem if a behaviour is wholly "determined", in any sense. It might be determined genetically, or by drugs, or by physics. There is behaviour which appears to be innate but which is altered by teaching (for example all children, so far as I know, are irresponsible in their toiletting. That seems to make it innate. It doesn't make it unchangeable).That is why I said I did not care if it was innate. Innate and determined are not synonymous, and this is one ambiguity which is confusing this discussion.C Elegans wrote:
In my opinion it matters to all moral problems whether a behaviour is "innate" in the sense genetically determinated, or not. In fact, that a behaviour is not "innate" in this sense is generally viewed as a prerequisite for even applying moral questions to a phenomenon. Is the eagle immoral for killing the mouse? Is the eagle immoral for not being vegetarian? Is the eagle's offspring immoral for killing each other so that only one, the biggest and strongest, will survive? Usually we answer no to all these questions, since the eagle does not, as far as we know, have a consciousness that allows for alternatives or even moral questioning.
In each of the examples you quote the human being has free will. I do not see any complication related to degrees of determination, for the reasons I have given above.Is the human immoral for killing a mouse? For killing another human being? For not being vegetarian? This is far more complicated since humans do have choices.
Both the starving child and the middle class thief have free will, and can choose to steal or not. They do not have different levels of freedom of choice as regards the stealing How the moral question is judged varies with such things as mitigating circumstances. Perhaps we are using the words "freedom of choice" to mean more than one thing?Moral problems must be viewed differently depending on the degree of freedom of choice. Unless we judge the starving child who steals for survival as equal to the middle-class thief who steals items simple because he or she wants them without paying for them.
I'm sorry Fas, I still don't understand. Your assumption is that all humans feel their culture is superior to others and that they feel the desire to impose these values on others. My question to you was if this assumption is correct, how do you then explain that there are cultures and individuals who do not demonstrate this feature. (In anthropology, there are descriptions of such cultures in the Pacific islands and in Africa, and such individuals can be found in any culture in my opinion). Now, your response to my statement was "if you can show me a culture which does not at any point on any subject not denote that it has superior values and has the right way of doing things, compared to another culture i will eat a hat!CM wrote:My response was to that question. I did not change the definition, rather I only answered a question which you brought up which was not related to my assumptions. Will await your response on friday.
Yep, here we differ. To me it would be absurd to totally dissociate the degree of freedom of action with freedom will, since in my opinion, free will becomes a meaningsless theoretical construct if we do. Let's consider Sartre's (wasn't it him? IIRC it's in Being and Nothingness) prison situation: the prisoner is going to be executed tomorrow. There is absolutely no way to change that. Still, the prisoner is not free from his free will: he can still committ suicide. His suicide is an act of free will, because it is a choice. It is a choice in the same sense that a tortured person can choose to confess in order to survive or cease the pain. Or our starving child can refrain from stealing and die instead. By making "free will" an all-or-nothing polarisation, it becomes useless in moral discussions since you then make the cosmetic life-style choices of the privileged rich world equal to the severly limited choices of other parts of the world. Would you make an equal moral judgeent of me if I had a daughter and I sold her as a sex slave to a pedophile, as if a starving family in Niger sold their daughter in order to support the rest of the family? Probably not, the other circumstances takes precedence far above the notion that we both acted out of free will. And that's what I mean with free will being an unimportant concept for moral assessment if you view it as all-or-none.Fiona] I don't really undestand this. There can be no moral problem if a behaviour is wholly wrote:
I will have to get back to you too in more detail later, but I will attempt to clear up what I believe is some basic misunderstandings.
I am very confused about how people use the word "innate" in this thread. As far as I know, "innate" means you are born with something, and then only two alternatives definitions exists. I presented these two alternatives in a previous post directed to Aegis where I wrote: "Do you mean mind set and behaviour are genetically preprogrammed from birth, or do you mean genetic predispositions that increases likelihood to react in a certain way in a certain type of situation, as I described above? I also wrote to yo that I think it matters to moral issues if a behaviour is "innate" in the sense genetically determinated.
Innate can only be genetic, since genes are what we are born with. Then it can be genetically determined, like our body plan (two arms, two legs, a head and a torso) or it can be various degrees of genetic disposition that interacts with environmental factors (like personality traits or breast cancer). So I am saying the same thing as you, innate is not synonymous with determined but since some people have posted statements where they suggest a certain behaviour is unchangeble, and they use the word "innate", I really must clarify what people mean in order to participate in this discussion.
However, if we claim that something is socially determined, then we mean if
To me, trying to put a percentage on free will is like trying to put a percentage on pregnancy. Either you are pregnant or you are not; either you have a choice or you don't.
<snip>
Both the starving child and the middle class thief have free will, and can choose to steal or not. They do not have different levels of freedom of choice as regards the stealing How the moral question is judged varies with such things as mitigating circumstances. Perhaps we are using the words "freedom of choice" to mean more than one thing?
LOL. When one is in the minority and when people on this forum tend to be extremely picky about word choice one must always be on guardCuchulain82 wrote:It is both a normal sentence and a sentence that has to do with theories. (You can let your guard down Fas; I'm not trying to sucker you into some rhetorical shouting match)
I ask because it seems like you are talking about the tension between the conflicting ideas that:
(a) values are relative. Culture determines values and if, for example, culture A celebrates religion by fasting, then culture B is in no position to judge. The alternative is
(b) some sort of absolute belief. The idea here is that there are certain rights that, due to your very existance as human, you are guaranteed. Usually these rights are at least the right to freedom from discrimination based on gender, sex, race, profession, social status, etc.
(As a side note, I would like to mention that you, Fas, by working for the UN, would appear to be endorsing option B, as the UN is the creator of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. Just food for thought...)
This is easily testible. Heck its testible in France, Holland, the US, Saudi Arabia and every country on the planet. In some cases it is reality. France with the Hijab law. Saudi Arabia with the anti-homosexual laws. Pakistan with its Hudood Ordinance (its basically a warped law that says that victims of rape have to produce 4 witinesses to the rape or are charged with having an affair and languish in jail). These are examples of laws, parts of societies which are abhorrent in others and you have people imposing their views as they are contrary to the others culture. On average NGOs are the most famous cases of such actions and most recently governments as well.2. That on specific issues like mortality, sexuality, religion in life and others they feel they are "right" and all views that do not agree with their point of view is/are wrong and they impose these views on other people/societies/cultures.
Again, you take examples from countries who already have a culture-centric and/or imperialistic culture, and believe in an exclusive religion that do not accept other religions as equally valid. Maybe it's your own cultural bias that makes you believe the behaviour in these cultures are shared by all human beings?CM] These assumptions are based on mainly the geo-political realities of the day. The role and influence of the media and the way it protrays societies wrote:
The arguments you presented in your post above look like anecdotal arguments to me. I certainly agree with you that many cultures, especially the currently dominating Western cultures and other expansion-oriented cultures indeed do view themselves as superior and strive to impose their values on others. However, it's a circle reasoning to say that cultures with dominating, imperialistic and/or culture-centric values, are dominating and culture centric. Obviously a culture that values power over others will strive towards getting power and influence over others. The interesting thing to me is whether this common behaviour is necessary or not, whether it is an unavoidable part of human nature or not, and I think not since cultures exist that do not have these values.
Threads here at Gamebanshee are also anecdotal evidence, and they are provide a very skew selection. As far as I know, we all come from cultures with culture-centric values. Europe and the US are extremly overrepresented. Nobody as far as I know come from for instance Central Africa or Polynesia.
However, some individuals here at SYM do not at all display a will to impose their culture at others, so I would think it is anecdotal evidence for the fact that not all individuals in a culture share the will to impose said culture on others.
But every human being you have met is also a skew selection, especially if you haven't met people from cultures that differ much from Pakistani, European or North American culture. See below for possible cultural bias in the observer, ie you.Because every single human being i have met is just as dogmatic and "superior" as the rest. It is human nature, now is it genetic or based on society one can not say as we have such a limited knowledge on genetics and its affects on our behaviours.
This paragraph I don't understand. If something is innate, you are born with it. Thus, it must be genetic, not environmental. Do you believe this "innate" trait can change due to environmental factors?I personally agree with Aegis in all that he has said so far about being an innate quality. You asked me earlier how i defined innate. Basically i was using it as an english word. Not as a scientific term as you describe it. In that manner innate describes society "brain-washing" you to think in a certian manner as Aegis has already described.
Not sure which sentence you mean is incorrect. However, again, examples are merely anecdotal evidence, they do not provide evidence this behaviour is general to all humans. There are descriptions of cultures that do no view themselves as superior to other cultures. I cannot link to them since this information is nothing I've found on internet, but in the ethnographic and anthropologic literature. One anthropologist who has described such cultures, and also left an extensive references to other, earlier work was the Robert Briffault, author of "The Mothers" and several other books. There are several older accounts of such cultures, written by European and American anthropologists in the 19th and 20th century. You can also check out the work of German-American anthropologists Franz Boas and his students Ruth Benedict and Margaret Mead. Here is a link to a biography of Boas, you will find a bibliography in the end as well as further links to biographies of Benedict and Meads.The first sentence is actually incorrect. I stated that all humans feel their culture is superior and on core issues of which some i highlighted they feel that the views of other cultures are infact wrong and wish to impose this on others. You can find examples on SYM. The 3 examples i have stated above are examples of that. CE if there are descriptions of cultures and societies which do not believe they have a superior culture could you link them?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Franz_Boas
Now, this is arts and not natural science so of course one can always question the correctness of the observations since they were made by individuals and not objectivly registered, quantified and replicated, but in arts, this is mostly impossible as you know, so coherence between descriptions must serve as a reliability measurement. It was a long time ago I read about it, but if you are seriously interested I can dig up more references.
This is where my major disagreement with you lies. If you make it a premise that everybody believe their own culture is superior, you can choose to interpret the 10 points as evidence for this and ignore the 990 points where the culture in question do not think it is superior. This has the absurd consequence that a culture who view another culture as superior on 100 points, would still according to your interpretation, qualify as believing itself as superior if it held that view on only 10 points. That's like saying we compete and you get 100 points and I get 10 points but I win because you give those 10 points a different meaning because it fits a personal definition that you have decided in beforehand. I think you should investigate the basis for your premise more closely, before building any further assumptions around it.I do understand the point you are making. You are basically taking the concept in absolutes. One culture either assumes it is absolutely superior or it is not. Thus the example of the 10 points out of a 1000. My assumption and premise is not based on the 990 points out of 1000. It is based on those 10. I will try to clear this up. You see the first premise is that everybody believes their culture is superior. That is to me a natural human trait.
Heh, a recent Swedish survey reported that only about 20% of Swedes are proud of being SwedishPeople are proud of being french, swedish, chinese or pakistani. They aren't proud of the letters that spell our their identity.![]()
2. That on specific issues like mortality, sexuality, religion in life and others they feel they are "right" and all views that do not agree with their point of view is/are wrong and they impose these views on other people/societies/cultures.
This is easily testible. Heck its testible in France, Holland, the US, Saudi Arabia and every country on the planet. In some cases it is reality.