fable wrote:Far from ducking them, I urge you <snip>I like a lot of subjects, too. Just not all at once.
Deal. We can try to stay on target. Learned Hand and Hugo Black are related because of the speech issue. Rousseau and the Arcadian Ideal (I don't even know what that is), alas, are not. I'm done with the semester now, so I can get more creative with my posts. The last time I started a [url="http://www.gamebanshee.com/forums/speak-your-mind-16/for-the-love-of-wisdom-please-no-spam-59196.html"]thread about philosophy[/url], it went out with something less than a whimper.
fable wrote:However, we don't have Jefferson handy, and you're showing yourself to be an intelligent communicator. So you'll do.
*waiting for the follow up punch...*
fable wrote:I think we'll both agree that Jefferson believed social equality was only possible when wealth wasn't the goal but simply the byproduct of one's own work, diligence, and intelligence. Do you think increasing inequality of wealth and power are the necessary byproducts of industrialization, along with its benefits?
Okay... that's two big points. Lemme see:
(1) I don't know if we agree about the Jeffersonian ideal. I think he was an part of the upper social heirarchy who dreamed lofty dreams from a mansion on the hill. With that said, I don't believe he had such contempt for wealth. I think he only cared about potential, and that everyone started out on the level as far as government rights were concerned. I think he was fine with people pursuing wealth primarily. His beef, if I understand it, was with the English system, where everyone was born into life knowing how far they were from the monarch. If you weren't lucky to be born into a household with land holdings, you were going to live a life of poverty. That is why he wanted to abolish the [url="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fee_tail"]fee tail[/url] system of property. (I keep coming back to property because it was the primary form up wealth until very recently)
(2) I don't have a good answer for the second question. I really don't. I believe Marx and Rousseau when they say that fungible currency creates a system of slave-wage labor; that's more Marx than Rousseau, but Rousseau is his precursor (look- I did get them into the thread! :speech: ). With that in mind, I don't think they
necessarily follow, I just think they have. The Carnegies and the Rockefellers were capitalists of the highest order, and of their own volition they established some of the most influential charities to date. Warren Buffet and Bill Gates are attempting to do something similar right now. Generally though, these guys are the exceptions and not the rule. It does seem that in capitalist societies, income inequality follows because those who have the ability to make money also have the ability to find ways to (a) make more money, and (b) keep others from making more money.
fable wrote:Where and when, do you think, did the protest against wealth controlling government become exclusively a "liberal" matter? And why?
I think in the US the wealth-controlling nature of liberals starts with the coopting of the term by republicans. Somewhere between McCarthy and Reagan, "liberal" became "welfare-mommy-loving, crack-whore-supporting, good-money-after-bad, bleeding-heart, save-the-trees, sissy." Part of the reason I like Rahm Emanuel so much is that he is an absolute pit bull for the democratic party- he plays hard for his team and does what he thinks is right.
If you look backwards it's not hard to see the evolution- more big business endorses republicans because they are generally
laissez faire, so when republicans get elected, they demonize wealth redistribution, saying things like "the government should cut taxes because the American people know how to spend their money better than the federal government." Does that help?
fable wrote:You made a factually incorrect statement. I corrected it: The fact that we have legally imposed limits on funding and kinds of funding for federal, state, and regional political races would seem to contradict your statement. I'd love to stop, just to please you, but as I haven't started anything nor had any desire to do so (campaign reform is not a thicket in which I've ever desired to tread; leave it to attorneys), in a thread I want to keep focused, I'm afraid I can't oblige you. You'll have to look somewher else for something to stop.
Well, I am training to be an attorney, so I'm supposted to know something about this. I'll keep the answer as short as possible:
I said I had you beat because of the law in this area. The law, while it does regulate spending, does so in such a limited fashion that there are essentially no practical limits on spending. There's "Soft Money" and "Hard Money", and the "Magic Words Test", but don't worry about that. What really matters begins with one Supreme Court decision: [url="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Buckley_v._Valeo"]
Buckley v. Valeo[/url]. What you need to know about this case is that an action of a legislative body limiting campaign spending was overturned on the basis of speech. This is what matters: campaign contributions= free speech.
You see, in the case the court had to choose between considering contributions to be speech or conduct. The government can regulate conduct a lot more than it can regulate speech. So, you can't buy sex anywhere (except Nevada)- it's illegal. That's the government regulating conduct. We're all okay with that. But if you couldn't talk about politics anywhere (except for Nevada, to continue with the theme), we'd all be up in arms because the first amendment guarantees our right to not have the government regulate speech.
In the case the court draws a distinction between contributions and expendatures, but the simple fact is that there are so few restrictions on campaign spending, and they are so easily circumvented, that there are essentially no practical restrictions on political funding. That's why, for better or worse, we're closing in on the first ever $1 Billion presidential election.
The court upheld this ruling recently in the case of
[url="http://www.law.duke.edu/publiclaw/supremecourtonline/certGrants/2005/ranvsor.html"]Randal v. Sorrell[/url]. I know about that case because it was a Vermont case, and the two sides of the case actually came to my Con Law class and argued it for us.
Okay, I'm pooped. I can't type anymore. I'll respond to new posts, but don't really have any more gumption for this one right now.